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Rapture
hasen't happened
Not to late to repent of NEW [UA] Versions
jim
There’s only
one version I’m going to use Jim - one I can understand.
No need to
repent about that. The idea God will judge those who don’t use the KJV adds a
whole new definition to sin. And adds works to the Gospel of Grace. One must not
only ‘repent’ and believe but MUST learn Elizabethan English (not the Gospel
"once delivered to the saints" (Eph.2:8-9). God doesn’t get angry over versions
He promised all nations would be blessed ‘through faith’ (Gal.3:8) ..... no
mention of 1611 English.
He uses the
clarity of modern versions to feed and speak to His people all the time. We are
not Bible-hating, Bible-rejecting apostates but enjoy His blessing. Its
more likely an incomprehensible translation would produce an erring Christian.
Christian’s
should be characterised by the indwelling Holy Spirit (Gal.3:1) their love of
Christ (Jn.14:15) and one another (Jn.13:35) not by a translation. We can
use any language version all our life without turning into KJ radicals. Because
that is a man made argument that needs to be taught by men.
Kind Regards
Mark
There
is no- witness of the Spirit of God to what you say
jj
Hi Jim.
The Holy
Spirit intended the Gospel should be understood in a multitude of languages
Ac.2:6-8, 9-11. He didn’t intend one must learn a particular language. He
intended God’s Word should be in an understandable tongue (Mt.24:14 Lk.24:45-
Which
confirms what I said.
One’s nation
or tongue is relevant as God’s Spirit applies Scripture to heart and mind. He
speaks with equal authority to Hebrew, Chinese, German or English. Our emphases
should be that the message has come of God - not a language version. Human
languages are entirely arbitrary and err. And even Scripture in our tongue is
dead letter without God’s Spirit opening eyes and hearts to the truth within. As
He is the Great Translator and Interpreter, not men.
So what
verse demands one repent from a bible version? Where does God’s Spirit witness
to what you say?
Kind regards
Mark
Titus 3:10
A man that is an heretick after the first and second
admonition reject;
Hi
Jim,
So
in Titus
That
gives a meaning to bible words the original writers never did. You have the KJV
referring to the KJV. Paul applies the word to one who follows Judaism not
Christianity, one insisting on adding circumcision to be saved. That’s the
meaning of ‘heretic’. The KJ ‘only doctrine’ could not exist until 1611, Paul
did not refer to it. The doctrine adds to the gospel of grace and demands
converts must learn English and only use the 1611. Paul refers to this idea -
(Gal.1:6-7) I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into
the grace of Christ unto another gospel: Which is not another; but there be some
that trouble you, and would pervert the
gospel of Christ.
Look
how the ‘KJ Only’ doctrine perverts the gospel -
You
can keep KJV radicalism, it’s an ugly doctrine. It makes one reject fellow
Christians and carry unnecessary bitterness all through life.
Truly,